GRE Literature in English MCQs Practice Test Questions Answers

1) The abstract theory of utilitarianism is the theme of Dicken’s novel:
a) Bleak House
b) A Tale of Two Cities
c) Hard Times
d) Great Expectations
e) None of these

c) Hard Times

2. The one remains, the many change and pass;
Heaven’s light for ever shines, earth’s shadows fly;

The above two lines occur in:
a) Keats’ Hyperion
b) Shelley’s Hymn to Intellectual Beauty
c) Shelley’s Adonis
d) Keats’ Ode to Psyche
e) None of these

c) Shelley’s Adonis

3. Name the character of a novel of Thomas Hardy, which is much like Oedipus, King Lear and Faust.

Answer. Tess.

4. She can not fade, though thou hast not the bliss,
For ever wilt thou love, and she be fair!

The above two lines have been taken from:
a) Keats’ Ode to a Nightingale
b) A Thing of Beauty
c) La Belle Dame Sans Mercy
d) Ode on a Grecian Urn

d) Ode on a Grecian Urn

5. ‘Withdrawal from an uncongenial world of escape either to death or more often, to an ideal dream world’, is the theme of Tennyson’s:
a) Ulysses
b) The Palace of Arts
c) The Lotos – Eaters
d) None of these

c) The Lotos – Eaters

6. Philip Waken, Aunt Pallet and Tom Tulliver are the characters of G. Eliot’s novel:
a) Silas Manner
b) Adam Bede
c) Middle March
d) The Mill on the Floss

d) The Mill on the Floss

7. “In all things, in all natures, in the stars,
This active principle abides,”
Identify the poet and his peculiar belief that can be understood from the above lines.

Answer. William Wordsworth as he was of the opinion that in this universe ‘nature’ is the point of focus for everything.

8. “Thy, Damnation, Slunbreth, Not”
Name the writer, his book and the character who uttered/wrote these words.

Writer – Thomas Hardy
Book – Tess of the D’Urbervilles
Character – a young man who is traveling the countryside painting scripture on the sides of barns walks

9. In Memoriam by Tennyson is:
a) an elegy
b) a collection of elegies
c) a lyric
d) a dramatic lyric
e) None of these

a) an elegy

10. The poem, “The Marriage of Heaven and Hell” was written by:
a) Shelley
b) Blake
c) Byron
d) Browning
e) None of these

b) Blake


(11) Ernest Hemingway wrote:

(a) Mr. Chips
(b) Pride and Prejudice
(c) Old Man and the Sea
(c) Old Man and the Sea


(12) “Intellectual Beauty” is written by:

(a) Bertrand Russell
(b) Huxley
(c) P.B.Shelley

(c) P.B.Shelley

(13) Who wrote “20th Century Views”?

(a) Abrahams, M. H.
(b) Palmer, D. J.
(c) Bertrand Russell

(a) Abrahams, M. H.

(14) ‘Desert Places’ is a:

(a) Poem
(b) Play
(c) Novel

(a) Poem

(15) The University Wits were:

(a) Poets
(b) Playwrights
(c) Novelists

(b) Playwrights

(16) William Shakespeare was Born in:

(a) 1564
(b) 1534
(c) 1616

(a) 1564

(17) Francis Bacon died in:

(a) 1616
(b) 1626
(c) 1648

(b) 1626

(18) The period between 1660 to 1750 is known as:

(a) The Age of Classicism
(b) The Restoration
(c) The age of Milton

(b) The Restoration


(19) Who wrote “The Pilgrim’s Progress”?

(a) John Bunyan
(b) Daniel Defoe
(c) Dryden

(a) John Bunyan

(20) ‘‘The Conduct of the Allies’ is a famous work of:

(a) Jonathan Swift
(b) Samuel Johnson
(c) Oliver ‘Goldsmith

(a) Jonathan Swift

GRE Chemistry MCQs Practice Test Questins

(1) There remains no liquid-vapour boundary at:
(a) boiling point (b) critical temperature
(c) triple point (d) azeotrope composition
(e) None of these
(2) If the rate of a reaction does not change with time then the reaction should be:
(a) moderately slow (b) very fast (c) catalyzed
(d) zeroth order (e) None of these.

(3) If a chemical reaction reaches equilibrium state:
(a) its forward and backward rates are equal
(b) its overall free energy change becomes zero
(c) its equilibrium constant is the ratio of the two rate constants
(d) all of these (e) none of these

(4) For a catalyzed reaction as compared to the uncatalyzed one:
(a) heat of reaction is higher (b) heat of reaction is lower
(c) heat of reaction is same (d) activation energy is same
(e) All above are correct

(5) When two ideal gases at the same temperature are mixed together:
(a) there is a negative heat of mixing
(b) there is a positive heat of mixing
(c) both heat and entropy of mixing are positive
(d) entropy of mixing alone is positive
(e) All above are correct

(6) Which of the series is present in the ultraviolet region for the H – atom?
(a) Layman (b) Balmer (c) Paschen
(d) Pfund (e) None of these

(7) Which halogens are gases at STP?
(a) Chlorine and Bromine (b) Chlorine and Fluorine
(c) Iodine and Fluorine (d) Iodine and Bromine

(8) The internal resistance of a liquid to flow is called:
(a) Surface tension (b) Capillary action
(c) Viscosity (d) Van der waals alteraction
(e) None of these

(9) Two Cu Cu2+ couples, A and B are prepared with Cu2+ concentration of exactly
twice that of B. If these two couples are joined to make a cell:
(a) No current will flow (b) Current will flow from A to B
(c) Current will flow from B to A (d) The system will be in equilibrium

(10) The valence of an element:
(a) Always equals the oxidation number
(b) Never equals the oxidation number
(c) Is unrelated to the oxidation number
(d) May be numerically equal to the oxidation number

(11) The basic raw materials used in a Blast furnace to produce Iron are Iron ore, Coke,
Air and:
(a) Scrap Iron (b) Sulphur (c) Sand
(d) Limestone (e) None of these

(12) In contrast to the carbonates of the alkali metals, the alkaline earth carbonates:
(a) Are more soluble
(b) Cannot be isolated
(c) Decompose on heating metal and CO2
(d) Decompose on heating forming oxide and CO2
(e) None of these

(13) Coustic Soda is the common name for:
(a) KOH (b) Na2CO3 (c) K2CO3
(d) NaOH (e) None of these

(14) When 2 g of Copper was heated with Sulphur 2.51 g of sulphide was produced.
The empirical formula of the sulphide is:
(a) Cu S2 (b) Cu2 S
(c) Cu2 S3 (d) None of these

(15) The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of:
(a) Protons in the nucleus (b) Protons and neutrons in the nucleus
(c) Neutrons in the nucleus (d) None of these

(16) A liquid will boil at a given temperature provided the atmospheric pressure is equal
to:
(a) The vapour pressure of the liquid (b) Zero
(c) One atmosphere (d) The critical pressure
(e) None of these

(17) When 12 g of magnesium are dissolved in acid, 1g of hydrogen is produced. What
conclusion may correctly be drawn from this information:
(a) The atomic weight of magnesium is 12
(b) The atomic weight of magnesium is 24
(c) The equivale nt weight of magnesium is 24
(d) Not possible to obtain atomic weight from this information

(18) The more reactive a metal:
(a) The less easily it is oxidized
(b) The more easily it gains electrons
(c) The greater is its tendency to form positive ions
(d) The small is its ionization potential
(e) None of these

(19) Sulphure crystallizes in both monoclinic and rhombic forms. This is an exampleof:
(a) A morphism (b) Isomorphism (c) Allotropy
(d) Supercooling (e) None of these
(20) The oxidation number of sulphur in H2SO4 is:
(a) – 2 (b) +2 (c) + 5
(d) + 4 (e) None of these

Physics GRE Subject Practice Test MCQs Questions

1) If the speed of particle is doubled then its kinetic energy becomes
(a) Doubled.
(b) Unchanged
(c) Four time.
(d) Half of the initial value

2) A ping – pong ball of mass m moving with velocity v bounces off a concrete surface with the same speed in the opposite direction. The change in it’s linear momentum is
(a) 2mw
(b) mv
(c) 1/2mv
(d) Zero

3) The work done by a force of 20 N in displacing an object through a distance of 5 cm is
(a) 100 J
(b) 4 J
(c) 400 J
(d) 1 J

4) The weight of an astronaut in space far from any planet in
(a) Zero
(b) Different than on earth
(c) Same on earth

5) A net force needed to give a mass of 250 kg an acceleration of 5 cm/sec2 is
(a) 25N
(b) 12.5N
(c) 10N
(d) 5N

6) A light year is a unit of
(a) Time
(b) Distance
(c) Velocity
(d) Intensity of light

7) A spaceship is circling a planet at a distance of 10000 km from its center. Assume that the radius of the planet is 5000 km mid the acceleration clue to gravity on it’s surface is 10 rn/sec2. The speed of the spaceship is
(a) 5 km/sec
(b) 1 km/sec
(c) 10km/sec
(d) 25 km/sec

8) A uniform spring with force constant K is cut into halves. Whet is the spring constant for one of the halves?
(a) Half of the original one.
(b) Twice the original one
(c) 1/4 of original one
(d) Same original one

9) A watt is the unit of
(a) Energy
(b) Power
(c) Work
(d) Capacity

10) Two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with each other if they have same
(a) Pressure
(b) Density
(c) Energy
(d) Temperature

(11) The capacitive reactance of a 5-m F capacitor in a 20-kHz circuit is
(a) 0.63W
(b) 1.6W
(c) 5W
(d) 16W
(e) none of these

(12) The impedance of a circuit does not depend on
(a) I
(b) f
(c) R
(d) C
(e) all of these

(13) At resonance, itis not true that
(a) R=Z
(b) XL=1/XC
(c) P=IV
(d) I=V/R

(14) A voltmeter across an AC circuit reads 50 V and an ammeter in series with the circuit reads 5 A. The power consumption of the circuit
(a) is less than or equal to 250 W
(b) is exactly equal to 250 W
(c) is equal to or more than 250 W
(d) may be less than, equal to, or more than 250 W
(e) none of these

(15) The magnetic flux through a wire loop in a magnetic field B does not depend on
(a) the area of the loop
(b) the shape of the loop
(c) the angle between the plane of the loop and the direction of B
(d) the magnitude B of the field
(e) none of these

(16 The alternating current in the secondary coil of a transformer is induced by
(a) a varying electric field
(b) a varying magnetic field
(c) the iron core of the transformer
(d) motion of the primary coil
(e) none of these

(17) When a diamagnetic substance is inserted in a current carrying solenoid, the magnetic field is
(a) slightly decreased
(b) greatly decreased
(c) slightly increased
(d) greatly increased
(e) none of these

(18) The N-type semiconductor is electrically
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) neutral
(d) charged

(19) When a 100¾ W, 240-V light bulb is operated at 200 V, the current that flows in it is
(a) 0.35 A
(b) 0.42 A
(c) 0.50 A
(d) 0.58 A
(e) none of these

(20) The a of a transistor is
(a) current gain in common base
(b) current gain in common emitter
(c) voltage gain in common emitter
(d) voltage gain in common base
(e) none of these